IPO Exam III Paper (Re-exam) Answers for 1 to 150 questions

INSPECTOR OF POSTS – III PAPER (RE-EXAM)

Question Booklet Series: A

1.      Code of Civil Procedure came into force in the year:

Ans: (C) 1909

2.      “Mesne Profits” under C.P.C. means:

Ans: (C) Benefits enjoyed by the person in wrongful possession of the property

3.      “Foreign Judgement” under C.P.C. means:

Ans: (D) The judgement of a Foreign court

4.      Decree of a Civil Court means and includes:

Ans: (A) Any order of dismissal for default

5.      “Judgement Debtor” means:

Ans: (D) A person against whom Decree has been passed

6.      Pleader means:

Ans: (D) Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in Court

7.      The word “Judge” under C.P.C. means:

Ans: (B) Presiding Officer of a Civil Court

8.      The word “Order” under section 2 of C.P.C. means:

Ans: (D) Formal expression of any decision of a

Civil Court

9.      “Share in a corporation” shall be deemed to include:

Ans: (C) Bond, stock, debenture, debenture stock

10. Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it, C.P.C. does not apply:

Ans: (B) Nagaland

·        ) These are comes under Civil Procedure Code 1908

11. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr.P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against:

Ans: (C) Accused offender

12. Attachment of the property of the person absconding:

Ans: (C) Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation u/sec. 82 of Cr. P.C.

13. A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving:

Ans: (A) Not less than 30 days time to the person concerned

14. Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/sec. 83 of Cr.P.C. by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/sec. 84 of Cr.P.C. is:

Ans: (C) Within six month of attachment

15. Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is:

Ans: (C) One year from the date of disallowing the claim

16. If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached:

Ans: (A) Shall be released from attachment

17. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from:

Ans: (D) Section 85 of Cr. P.C.

18. If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached:

Ans: (D) Both (A) & (B)

19. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the same proceeds on appearance:

Ans: (C) Within 2 years of attachment

20. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the Court that:

Ans: (D) Both (A) & (B)

21. The power of issuing proclamation u/sec. 82 Cr.P.C.:

Ans: (D) All the above

22. A proclamation issued u/sec. 82 Cr.P.C. is issued:

Ans: (D) All the above

23. Attachment orders u/sec. 83 Cr.P.C. is to be passed:

Ans: (D) All the above

24. Attachment u/sec. 83 Cr.P.C. of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made:

Ans: (C) Through the District Collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated

                       

·        ) These are comes under Criminal Procedure Code 1973.

25. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant u/sec. 6 of Evidence Act

Ans: (C) Though not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place

26. Several classed of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant:

Ans: (B) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

27. Motive behind an Act is relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

28. Preparation for an Act is relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

29. Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevane:

Ans: (C) Both (A) & (B)

30. Under section 8 of Evidence Act:

Ans: (D) All the above are relevant

31. When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant:

Ans: (A) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

32. Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant:

Ans: (B) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

33. A person is not entitled to give evidence of a fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law:

Ans: (A) Under section 5 of Evidence Act

34. The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B where delivered to A. The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively. Each delivery is a relevant fact:

Ans: (B) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

35. The question is, whether A murdered B. Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant fact:

Ans: (C) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

36. A is accused of murder of B by beating him. Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact:

Ans: (B) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

37. A is tried for murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

38. The question is whether A omitted a crime. The fact that a absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made fro the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

39. The question is, whether A was robbed. The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant:

Ans: (C) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

40. A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money. B denies the making of bond. The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made, B required money for particular purpose, is relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

·        ) These are comes under Indian Evidence Act 1872.

41. ‘Wrongful gain’ means:

Ans: (B) Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled. (Under section 23 of IPC)

42. ‘Wrongful loss’ means:

Ans: (A) Loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled. (Under section 23 of IPC)

43. ‘Dishonestly’ has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another:

Ans: (D) Under section 24 of IPC

44. ‘Fraudulently’ has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud:

Ans: (C) Under section 25 of IPC

45. Section 34 of IPC:

Ans: (A) Creates a substantive offence

46. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

Ans: (A) Death of a human being

47. Illegal signifies:

Ans: (D) All the above (Under section 43 of IPC)

48. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention-as defined:

Ans: (C) Under section 52 of IPC

49. Personating a public servant is an offence:

Ans: (B) Under section 170 of IPC

50. The term ‘injury’ as defined in section 44 of IPC, means:

Ans: (C) Any harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind, property and reputation

51. The word ‘voluntarily’ has been defined:

Ans: (B) In section 39 of IPC

52. For the application of section 34 of IPC, there must be at least:

Ans: (A) Two persons

53. Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable:

Ans: (B) Under section 174 of IPC

54. Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is punishable:

Ans: (A) Under section 177 of IPC

55. Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable:

Ans: (D) Under section 186 of IPC

56. Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable:

Ans: (B) Under section 188 of IPC

57. Threat of injury to public servant is punishable:

Ans: (A) Under section 189 of IPC

58. Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable:

Ans: (C) Under section 491 of IPC

59. Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided:

Ans: (C) In section 54 of IPC

60. Under section 73 of IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed:

Ans: (A) 3 months

61. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine:

Ans: (B) Has to be simple (Under section 67 of IPC)

62. In IPC the pronoun ‘he’ and its derivative are used to denote:

Ans: (C) Either                      (Under section 8 of IPC)

63. In IPC the word ‘India’ means the territory of Indian excluding:

Ans: (B) State of Jammu & Kashmir (Under section 18 of IPC)

64. The word ‘Public servant’ has been defined in IPC:

Ans: (B) In section 21

65. The word ‘Special law’ has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean:

Ans: (A) A law applicable to a particular subject

66. The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited:

Ans: (D) In section 168 of IPC

67. The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited:

Ans: (C) In section 169 of IPC

68. Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments:

Ans: (D) 6 or (C) 5 (As per the sec. 53 of IPC there are 6 types of punishments are told. The III punishment was omitted w.e.f. 06.04.1949)

69. A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange. As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who  may become lawful holder of it:

Ans: (A) The endorsement is a valuable security   (Under section 30 of IPC)

70. The concept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided:

Ans: (A) In section 34 of IPC

·        ) These are comes under Indian Penal Code 1860.

71. In which case, It was held by the Supreme Court that ‘Preamble is the basic feature of the Constititution’?

Ans: (D) In re: Keshwananda Bharti    (Vs State of Kerala)

72. In which case, It was held by the Supreme Court that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13?

Ans: (A) In re: Golaknath case  (Vs State of Punjab)

73. The number of Article in Indian Constitution is:

Ans: (C) 395

74. The list of States and Union Territories is mentioned in which schedule of the Constitution?

Ans: (A) First

75. The establishment and constitution of Supreme Court has been provided in:

Ans: (C) Article 124

76. Which provision of Constitution says that Civil and Judicial authorities to Act in aid to Supreme Court?

Ans: (B) Article 144

77. Which provision of Constitution says that High Courts to be courts of record?

Ans: (B) Article 215

78. Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is provided in Art.32 and that of High court in Art.226,:

Ans: (B) Jurisdiction of Supreme Court u/Art.32 is broader than the jurisdiction of High Courts u/Art.226

79. ‘Gram Sabha’ has been created under which Article of Constitution?

Ans: (B) Art.243A

80. Right to Property under Art.300A is a:

Ans: (C) Statutory right

81. Power of Parliament to restrict trade and commerce has been described in:

Ans: (C) Art.302

82. Public Service Commission for the union and states are created:

Ans: (D) Under Art.315 of Constitution

83. The rules of dismissal and reduction of rank of civil servants emanates from:

Ans: (A) Art.311 of Constitution

84. Power of Governor to grant Pardon is given is:

Ans: (B) Art.161

85. Preventive detention according to Art.22 can be enforced:

Ans: (A) Only during the time of communal violence

86. Proclamation of Emergency is valid up to:

Ans: (D) It has to be for 6 months only and if needed further, a second resolution has to be passed

87. Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under:

Ans: (A) Article 20

88. In the Indian Polity, ultimate sovereignty rests with:

Ans: (A) The people

89. The Prime Minister is:

Ans: (B) The head of the government

90. The Finance Commission is appointed by the:

Ans: (A) President          (Article 280 of Constitution of India)

91. Which article provides fundamental right of ‘right to education’?

Ans: (D) 21A

92. In India who is the legal advisor to the State Government?

Ans: (D) Advocate General

93. If a Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed:

Ans: (A) There is no remedy by judicial proceedings

94. Indira Sawhney Vs Union of India is a case dealing with:

Ans: (D) Reservation of OBCs

95. Article 17 of the Constitution:

Ans: (C) Abolishes untouchability

96. Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers?

Ans: (A) Preamble

97. The power of institution of suits and proceedings against the Central Government and State Government is provided in which article?

Ans: (C) Article 300

98. The Attorny General of India holds office during the pleasure of the:

Ans: (A) President               (Under Section 76 of Constitution of India)

99. The eighth schedule of the Constitution contains:

Ans: (B) List of languages recognized by the Constitution

100.   National Emergency can be declared by the President:

Ans: (C) On the recommendation of the Council of Minister   (Under Article 352 of Constitution of India)

101.   The provisions of Art.311 does not apply to:

Ans: (D) All the above

102.   Who decides whether a bill is Money Bill of nor?

Ans: (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha

103.   Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

Ans: (A) The Vice-President

104.   An order of Court to produre a man before it is called:

Ans: (A) Habeas Corpus

105.   Which article separates judiciary from executive?

Ans: (B) Article 50

106.   All India Services has been created under which article?

Ans: (C) Article 312

·        ) These are comes under Constitution of India

107.   Which of the following right is not provided under the Consumer Protection Act?

Ans: (D) Right to punish

108.   The pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer State Commission is:

Ans: (C) Above 20 lakhs                 (Above 20 Lakhs but below 1 Crore)

109.   The limitation for filing appeal under the Consumer Protection Act is:

Ans: (B) 30 days from the order

110.   Medical Services were brought under the Consumer Protection Act by the Supreme Court in the famous case of:

Ans: (A) Indian medical association Vs V.P.Shantha

111.   Consumer mentioned u/section 2 of the Act includes:

Ans: (C) Both of them

112.   The limitation for filinf a Consumer Complaint is:

Ans: (B) 2 Year                    (Under Section 24A of COPRA)

113.   The delay in filing Consumer Complaint can be condoned under:

Ans: (C) Section 24 A (2) of the Act

114.   Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as:

Ans: (C) District Forum

115.   The responsibility of a consumer under the Act includes:

Ans: (D) All of the above

116.   Appeal from the Orders of Consumer Nation Commission lies to:

Ans: (B) Supreme Court

117.   Under which provision District Forum can impose punitive damages?

Ans: (A) Section 14 (a) of the Act

118.   A person against whom an order has been passed by the District Forum may go into appeal to the Consumer State Commission subject to his depositing:

Ans: (C) Lesser of (A) & (B)

119.   The President of Consumer State Commission is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the:

Ans: (C) Chief Justice of the High Court

120.   The pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer National Commission is:

Ans: (B) Above 1 Crore

121.   The provision of transfer of complaints from one District Forum to another within the state vests with the State Commission under:

Ans: (C) Section 17 A of the Act

·        ) These are comes under Consumer Protection Act 1986

122.   The word “Information” under the RTI Act includes:

Ans: (C) Both of them

123.   The RTI Act came into effect in the year:

Ans: (B) 2005

124.   The provision of the RTI Act giving citizen right to information is:

Ans: (B) Section 3

125.   The language of an application under RTI Act may be:

Ans: (D) All of the above

126.   The period of filing appeal under the RTI Act is:

Ans: (A) 30 days

127.   An application making request for information:

Ans: (A) Shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information

128.   The general time limit for providing information sought under RTI Act is:

Ans: (B) 30 days

129.   The type of informations exempted under the RTI Act are mentioned in:

Ans: (C) Section 8

130.   The term of the office for the Chief Information Commission and Information Commissioners is:

Ans: (D) 5 years and superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier

131.   Bar of jurisdiction of Courts in respect of any order made under the RTI Act is contained in:

Ans: (C) Section 23

132.   The umbrella organization under the RTI Act to Co-ordinate and monitor the implementation of the provision of the Act is:

Ans: (B) National Advisory Council

133.   The object of the RTI Act is:

Ans: (D) All the above

134.   RTI Act applies to:

Ans: (D) Only (A) & (B)

135.   The period for filing second appeal under section 19 of the RTI Act is:

Ans: (C) Up to 90 days

136.   The limit of penalty to be imposed by the State Information Commission or the Central Information Commission under section 20 of the Act on the Principal Information Officer is rupees:

Ans: All are wrong. Correct answer is Rs.25,000/-

·        ) These are comes under Right To Information Act 2005

137.   Number of chapters in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 are:

Ans: (D) 23

138.   How many of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:

Ans: (C) 5 or (B) 6     (As per the sec. 53 of IPC there are 6 types of punishments are told. The III punishment was omitted w.e.f. 06.04.1949)

139.   Chapter V of Indian Penal Code deals with:

Ans: (A) Abetment               (Under section 107 to 120)

140.   Abettor is a person:

Ans: (B) Who instigates the commission of offence

141.   Preventing service of summons or other proceeding or preventing publication thereof, shall be punished with:

Ans: (C) Any of (A) & (B)   (Under section 173 of IPC)

142.   Under section 99, the right of private defence is:

Ans: (C) Available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt

143.   A public servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding, shall be punished with:

Ans: (C) Simple imprisonment for 1 month and fine of Rs.500/-     (Under section 172 of

144.   Obstructing public servant in discharge functions, shall be punished with:

Ans: (A) Imprisonment for 6 months, or fine of Rs.1000/- or both

·        ) These are comes from Indian Penal Code 1860

145.   Numbers of chapters in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

Ans: (C) 11

146.   Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not apply on affidavits and arbitration:

Ans: (A) Correct statement

147.   Relevancy is:

Ans: (A) Question of law and can be raised at any time

·        ) These are comes from Indian Evidence Act 1872

148.   RTI Act 2005 covers all the states in India except:

Ans: (C) Jammu & Kashmir

149.   Which one of the following is not a member of committee for appointment of CIC?

Ans: (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

·        ) These are comes from Right To Information Act 2005

150.   Which of the following is not a writ provided in the constitution of India:

Ans: (D) Injunction

·        ) This is from Constitution of India

Questions from	No. of questions	Percentage of marks
Civil Procedure Code 1908 (CPC)	10	6.66
Criminal Procedure Code 1973 (Cr.PC)	14	9.33
Indian Evidence Act 1872 (IEA)	19	12.66
Indian Penal Code 1860 (IPC)	38	25.33
Constitution of India	36	24
Consumer Protection Act 1986 (COPRA)	15	10
Right To Information Act 2005 (RTI)	18	12

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